TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
PHYSICS
1. Assertion (A): A rocket that is sent to space, has to give an extra force at certain
Distance from earth.
Reason (R): At a certain distance from earth, earth is encircled by a ring of vacuum
Now select the correct answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
B) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
2. Match List1 with List 2 correctly and select your answer using the codes given below:
List 1 List 2
a) Relationship between electricity and magnetism 1.Neils Bohr
b) Velocity of light 2. Ampere
c) Radio waves 3.Focaul
d) Structure of atom 4.Hertz
Codes:
a b c d
A) 1 3 4 2
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 2 3 4 1
D) 4 3 1 2
3. Fuel cells are used in
A) Aircrafts B) Electric locomotives C) Space crafts D) Submarines
4. Which of the following is used for crystal structures studies?
A) Infrared spectroscopy B) Raman spectroscopy
C) Atomic emission spectroscopy D) X-ray diffraction
5. The scientist who sent electromagnetic waves to distant places is
A) James Clark Maxwell B) Heinrich Hertz C) Thomas Alva Edison D) Baird.
6. In the electrical circuit of a house the fuse is used
A) To regulate the current B) to load C) as a safety device D) as step- down device
7. In an LCR circuit which will give a phase lead to current than voltage?
A) L (inductance) B) C (capacitance) C) R (resistance) D) All together.
8. A drop of water is spherical due to
A) Surface tension B) Low pressure C) air resistance D) Viscosity of water
9. The frequency of ultrasound wave is typically
A) Above 20 kHz B) above 20000 kHz C) below 20 kHz D) below 2 kHz
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
CHEMISTRY
1. What is the expansion of CLRI?
A)Central Laser Research Institute B)Central Latex Research Institute
C) Central Latex Research Institute D) Cultural and Language Research Institute
2. The radius of an atom is
A) 10-12 m B) 10-15 m C) 10-16 m D) 10-10 m
3. The rays similar to X rays but of smaller wavelength that are given off by radioactive substances are
A) α rays B) β rays C)γ Rays D)cosmic rays.
4. The carbon dioxide dissolved in water
A) Enhances corrosion B) Suppresses corrosion
C) Prevents corrosion D) has no influence on corrosion.
5. Nylon is a
A) Polyester B) Polyethylene C) Polyamide D) Polysaccharide
6. One carat of diamond is
A) 100 mg B) 200 mg C) 300 mg D) 400 mg
7. Sugar in blood and urine is tested with
A) Benedict’s solution B) Brine solution C) Hypo solution D) Iodine solution.
8. TV antenna elements are made up of
A) Aluminium B) Copper C) Tin D) Zinc
9. Dry ice is
A) Liquid nitrogen B) Purified ice C) Solid carbon dioxide D) Super cooled ice
10. The calorie value of the fuel is of the order
A) Coal>Peat>lignite>dried wood B) Peat >Lignite> Coal>Dried wood
C) Lignite>Peat>Coal>Dried wood D) Coal>Lignite>Peat>Dried wood
11. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A) Baking soda -Sodium bicarbonate B) caustic soda - Calcium carbonate
C) Soda lime -Sodium carbonate D) washing soda - Calcium hydroxide
12. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A) Ascorbic acid -Vitamin B) Insulin -Antiseptic
C) Penicillin -Antipyretic D) Proteins -Polysaccharide
13. Consider the following statements
Assertion (A): Rusting of iron is quicker in sea water than in river water.
Reason (R): Salinity helps in carrying current
Now select the correct answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C (A) is true, but (R) is false
D (A) is false, but (R) is true
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
BOTANY
1. From which of the following bio diesel is obtained?
A) Ethyl alcohol B) Cellulose C) Bagasse D) Jatropha
2. The plant group which yields TAXOL belongs to
A) Bryophyte B) Gymnosperm C) Pteridophyte D) Lichen
3. Alga used for hydrocarbon production is
A) Gracilaria B) Chlorella C) Botryococcus D) Sargassum
4. When did National Biodiversity Act of India come into existence?
A) 2002 B) 1992 C) 1997 D) 1967
5. Good plant sources of choline are
A) Yeast B) Mushroom C) Green leaves D) Cereal grains.
6. Ornithophily refers to
A) Pollination through wind B) Pollination through birds
C) Pollination by insects D) Dispersal of seeds by winds.
7. The removal of water from the plants in the form of liquid droplets is
A) Guttation B) Transpiration C) Transduction D) Transformation.
8. Which one of the following is a total stem parasite?
A) Cuscuta B) Drosera C) Viscum D) Vanda
9. The plant which was successfully used in the production of edible vaccine is
A) Pea B) Mango C) Potato D) Cabbage
10. Identify the characteristic feature of a prokaryotic cell:
A) Presence of cell wall B) Presence of 80 s Ribosome
C) Absence of genetic material `D) Presence of 70s Ribosome
11. During respiration the oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
A) Matrix of chloroplast B) Matrix of mitochondrion
C) Inner membrane of mitochondrion D) Grana of chloroplast
12. Mitochondria are present in all cells, except
A) Yeast B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Algae
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
ZOOLOGY
1. World AIDS day is observed on
A) 1st January B) 4 th April C) 1 st December D) 20 th August
2. Identify the chemosynthetic bacteria among the following
A) Rhizobium B) Clostridium C) Nirobacter D) Beggiatoa.
3. ‘Sirenin ‘ is a sex hormone produced by
A) Alga B) Fungus C) Lichen D) Bacterium
4. On which of the following bases has the Planning Commission defined poverty in India?
A) 2400 k.cal B) 1800 k.cal C) 2500 k.cal D) 2600 k.cal
5.World Environmental Day is celebrated on ……… every year.
A) 18 th May B) 5 th June C) 24 th October D)25 th December
6. Which hormone is responsible for ejection of milk?
A ) Oxytocin B) Prolactin C) Thyroxine D) Testosterone
7.In human 45 numbers of chromosomes(22 AA+XO) is resulted in
A)Turner’s syndrome B) Down syndrome
C) Klinefelter’s syndrome D)Edwards syndrome
8.Which of the following is called as royal disease?
A) Anemia B)Leukemia C)Haemophilia D)Colour blindness
9. Which one of the following is not a vaccine?
A) Polio vaccine B)BCG C) Anti-rabies D)Progesterone
10. Mutation was discovered by
A)Morgan B) Huxley C)Mendel D)Hugo de Vries
11. The red colour of the blood is due to
A)Albumin B) Hemoglobin C) Vitamin B 6 D) Relaxin.
12. Match List1 with List 2 correctly and select your answer using the codes given below:
List1 list2
a) Growth Hormone 1.Pancreas
b) Thyroxine 2.Testis
c) Insulin 3.Pituitary
d) Testosterone 4.Thyroid
Codes:
a b c d
A) 3 4 1 2
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 2 1 4 3
13. Match List1 with List 2 correctly and select your answer using the codes given below:
List1 list2
a) Artery 1.Pure blood
b) Vein 2.Oxygenated blood
c) Pulmonary artery 3.Deoxygenated blood
d) Pulmonary vein 4.Impure blood
Codes:
a b c d
A) 2 3 4 1
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 4 1 2 3
D) 1 2 3 4
14. Consider the following statements
Assertion (A): Malarial parasite feeds on the blood of man.
Reason (R): One of the parasite adaptations is loss of digestive system
and hence depends on host for food.
N ow select the correct answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B Both (A) and (R) are false
C (A) is true, but (R) is false
D (A) is false, but (R) is true
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
MATHEMATICS
1. Consider the following statements
Assertion (A): Median of {7, 2, 12, 5, 9} is 7
Reason (R): The middle most value of a data is called median.
Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given bellow:
A) (A) is true ,but (R) is false
B) (A) alone is true
C) R) alone is true
D) Both (A) and (B) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.Match List1 with List 2 correctly and select your answer using the codes given below:
List 1 list 2
a ) Correlation coefficient 1.Mean= Median = Mode
b) Coefficient of variation 2. Least
c) For a symmetrical distribution 3.Percentage variation
d) Mean deviation from Median 4. Cannot exceed unity
Codes:
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 4 2 3 1
C) 4 3 1 2
D) 3 4 2 1
3. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A) Harmonic mean - A measure of skewness
B) Mean deviation - An average
C) Analysis - An arrangement of data
D) Sales and profit - Positive correlation
4. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A) Data - A collection of objects
B) Mode - A well defined measure
c) Range - Difference between the largest and the smallest items of a data
d) Q.D - A best measure of dispersion.
5. The average of three numbers is 135. The largest number is 180 and the difference of the other
Two is 25.The smallest number is
A)130 B)125 C)120 D)100
6. By frequency distribution we mean the classification of data according to
A) Dis similarities B) similarities C) Class intervals D) Magnitude
7. Value of M.D {5, 5, 5, 5, 5} from Median is
A) 0 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5
8. If y = 3 +2 x, then the coefficient of correlation between x and y is
A) -1 B) 0 C) 0.5 D) 1
9. Which one of the following measures cannot be computed for {2, 7, 5, 10, 4}?
A) Mean B) Median C) Mode D) Harmonic Mean
10. Consider the following statements
Assertion (A): Histogram is a graphical presentation of data
Reason (R): Statistical data can be represented in the form of graphs.
Now select the correct answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A Both (A) and (R) are true
B Both (A) and (R) are false
C (A) is true, but (R) is false
D (A) is false, but (R) is true
11. What least number must be added to 1056 to get a number exactly divisible by 23?
A) 21 B) 25 C) 3 D) 2
12. The ratio of two numbers is 13:15 and their LCM is 39780.The numbers are
A) 2652, 3060 B) 884, 1020 C) 884, 1040 D) 670, 1340
13. Hexadecimal is the number system with base
A) 10 B) 16 C)8 D)2
14.√248+√52+√144 =?
A) 14 B) 16 C) 18.8 D) 16.6
15. The boys and girls in a college are in the ratio 3:2.If 20 % of the boys and 25 % of the girls are adults, the percentage of students who are not adults is
A) 67.5 % B) 82.5 % C) 78 % D) 58 %
16. Five years ago the age of A, B, C, D was 45 years. By including X the present average of all the five is 49 years. Then the present age of X is
A) 64 years B) 48 years C) 45 years D) 40 years
17. The different between simple interest and the compound interest on Rs 800 at 5 % per annum for 1 year is
A) Rs 81 B) Rs 41 C) RS 56.50 D) None of these
18. A boat moves downstream at the rate of 1 km in 6 minutes and up stream at the rate of
1 km in 10 minutes. The speed of current is
A) 2 km/hr B) 1 km / hr C) 1.5 km / hr D) 2.5 km/hr
19. The ratio of number of boys and girls in a school of 720 students is 7:5.
How many more girls should be admitted to make the ratio 1:1?
A) 90 B) 220 C) 120 D) 240
20. A can do 1/3 of a work in 5 days. B can do 2/5 of the work in 10 days.
In how many days both A and B can do the work?
A) 7 ¾ B) 9 3/8 C) 8 4/5 D)10 days
21. If same patterns of operations are followed in all the three diagrams given below,
the missing number is
5 | ||
6 | 93 | 15 |
3 |
7 | ||
9 | ? | 5 |
6 |
18 | ||
4 | 50 | 1 |
8 |
A) 5 B) 19 C) 27 D) 89
22. What is the missing exterior angle of the quadrilateral given below?
A) 100̇̇̇̇ B) 90 C) 80 D) 75
23. (a/b) x-1 = (b/a) x-3 then the value of x is
A) 3/2 B) 2/3 C) 1 D) 2
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
HISTORY
SINDU PERIOD HISTORY
1. The people of Indus valley civilization worshipped
A) Pashupathi B) Indra and varuna C) Brahma D) Vishnu
2. The Indus Valley civilization was discovered in the year
A) 1922 `B) 1910 C) 1822 D) 1824
3. The Indus Valley civilization is about
A) Ten thousand years old B) Seven thousand years old
C) Five thousand years old D) Three thousand years old
4. The Indus Valley people built their house using
A) Stone B) Wood C) Bricks D) All of these
5. The main occupation of the Paleolithic people was
A) Agriculture B) Animal Husbandry C) Fishing D) Hunting and gathering food
VEDHA PERIOD [HISTORY]
6. Which one of the following is not the minor deity according to Aryans?
A) Mitra B) Adityas C) Asvins D) Vasus
RELIGIOUS PERIOD HISTORY
7. Which of the following is not a representative of Buddhist art?
A) Stupa B) Vihara C) Chaitya D) Relic towers
8. A great exponent of mahayanism was
A) Dingnaga B) Dharmakirti C) Nagarjuna D) Vasubandhu Asanga
9. Which is described in Ajanta paintings?
A) Jainism B) Buddhism C) Saivism D) Vaishnavism.
10. Upanishads are books on
A) Religion B) Yoga C) Philosophy D) Law
11. The Jain temple known for the finest marble carvings in India are situated at
A) Gwalior B) Jaipur C) Gandhara D) Dilwara
12. Which one of the following rulers had a uniform administration all over the country?
A) Gupta rulers B) Mughal rulers C) British rulers D) All of these rulers.
KINGS PERIOD HISTORY
13.The masterpieces of Mauryan art were the
A)Stupas B) Sculptures C) Ashoka Pillars D)Both (B) and (C)
14.Compare to Gupta age the caste system was more rigid during
A) The Mauryan age B) The time of Harshavardhana
C) The Sagas D) The Cholas.
15. Consider the following statements
Assertion (A): The Kushanas were of Central Asian origin.
Reason (R): T hey were a derivative of the Yue-chi tribe.
Now select the correct answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A Both (A) and (R) are true And (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B Both (A) and (R) are false, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C (A) is true, but (R) is false
D (A) is false, but (R) is true
16.Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A)Ellora caves - Saka
B)Mahabalipuram - Rashtrakutas
C)Meenakshi temple -Pallavas
D)Khajuraho -Chandelas
17Samudragupta permitted a foreign king Meghavarman to build a monastery at Gaya. Meghavarman belongs to
A)Nepal B) Sri lanka C) Bhutan D) Pakistan.
ENGLISH RULARS PERIOD
18.The Carnatic wars were fought between
A) The Nawab of Carnatic and the British
B) The Nawab of Carnatic and the French
C) The British and the French
D) None of them
19. Which of the following were included in the Cripps proposals?
I. India was promised dominion status.
II. Setting up of a constitution- making body consisting of the elected representatives from
British India and the members from the princely states.
III. Setting up of an Executive Council composed of Indians alone.
IV. It suggested partition of India.
INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT
20. Wardha Scheme of Basic Education is proposed by
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Liaquat Ali Khan C) Mahatma Gandhi D) M.A.Jinnah
21. Consider the following statements
Assertion (A): Dr. Annie Besant organized the Home Rule movement against the British rule.
Reason (R): She wanted to organized all sections of Indian people on the basis of a single l
Political slogan above religious considerations.
Now select the correct answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A Both (A) and (R) are true And (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B Both (A) and (R) are false, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C (A) is true, but (R) is false
D (A) is false, but (R) is true
22. Who prepared the draft of the Quit India Resolution?
A) Acharya Kripalani B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Sardar Vallabhai Patel D) Pattabhi Sitaramayya.
23. Arrange the following events in chronological order and mark the choice from the option given
Bellow:
I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak
II. Nagpur session of the congress
III The Moplah uprising
IV. The inauguration of Vishwa Bharathi at Shantiniketan
A)IV,III,II and I B)III,IV,IIand I C) II.I,III and IV D)III,II,IV and I
24. Two greatest pioneers in the course widows’s education were
A) D.K.Karve and pandit Ramabai
B) M.G.Ranade and R.G.Bhandarkar
C) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar and Keshav Chandra Sen
D) B.M.Malabari and K.Sridharalu Naidu
25. The Vaikkom Satyagraha was launched in 1924 for
A) Opening the to the low caste Hindus
B) Fighting against the exploitation by the Landlords
C) Removal of press restrictions
D) Demonstration of the administration of Travancore state
26. Vande Mataram was first sung at the session of the Indian National Congress in
A) 1892 B) 1896 C)1904 D)1886
TAMILNADU - HISTORY
27. Which of the following was a Chola king?
A) Nadunjhelian B) Karikala
C) Nedunjeradan D) Aryappadai Kadanda Nedunjhelian
28. The Shiva temple at Thanjavur was built by Rajaraja the Great who was
A) a Chola ruler B) a Pallava ruler
C) a Pandya ruler D) None of the above
29. Gangaikonda Cholapuram temple was built by
A) Rajaraja I B) Vikrama Chola C) Rajadhiraja D) Rajendran I
30. Who establish the ‘Pathini cult ?
A) Nenunjeraladan B) Karikalan C) Elango Adigal D) Senguttuan
31. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below
List I List II
a)Neem leaf 1.Lord Vinayaka
b)Arasu leaf 2. Lord Shiva
c)Tulasi leaf 3. Amman
d)Vilvum leaf 4.Lord Vishnu
Codes:
a b c d
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 3 1 4 2
D) 4 3 2 1
32. Which one of the following fruits is not included in the list of Mukkanni?
A) Jackfruit B) Mango C) Banana D) Sapota
33. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below
List I List II
a)Bull 1. Yama
b)Rat 2. Sivaperuman
c)Peacock 3. Vinayaka
d) Buffalo 4. Muruga
34. The chief centre or meeting point of the Indo Roman trade was
A) Arikamedu B) Alexandria C) Madurai D) Musiri
35. Who is called as the father of pure Tamil movement ?
A) Bhavanar B)Bharathi C) Thiru.V.Kalyanasundaranar D) Maraimalai Adikal
36. Consider the following statements :
I. Most of the inscriptions of the Pallavas were in Sanskrit.
II. Mahendravarman I composed a burlesque called Mattavilasa Prahasana.
III. The Chinese traveler Hiuen Tsang visited Kanchi during the period of Pallavas
IV. Dingnaga was the logician and the author of Nyaya Bhashya.
Of the statements
A) I alone is correct B) I and II are correct
C) I,II and III are correct D) All are correct.
37. The chief features of the temples constructed by the Cholas were their
A) Vimanas B) Assembly halls for the devotes
C) Massive pillars D) Gopuras
38. The first verse drama (opera) in Tamil is
A) Harichandra Natakam B) Nandan Charitram
C) Shakuntala Natakam D) Savitiri Natakam
39. The Kailasanath temple at Kanchipuram was build by
A) Nandivarman II B) Mahendravarman I
C) Narasimhavarman II D) Dandivarman
40. Which of the following materials was a famous commercial product in ancient Tamilnadu
Exported to other places?
A)Fish B) Pearl C) Pulses D) Dogs
41. Name of the President of Tamilnadu Congress at the time of Non – cooperation movement was
A) Rajaji B) Prakasam C) K.V.Reddy D) Periyar E.V.R
42. The correct descending order of the three categories of the chiefs was
A) Vendar,Kilar,velir B) Vendar, velir, Kilar
C) Velir, Vendar, Kilar D) Kilar, Velir,Vendar
43. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below
List I List II
(Books) (Authors)
a)Silappadikaram 1. Tiruvalluvar
b)Manimekalai 2.Ilango Adigal
c)Tirukkural 3. Agastiya
d)Akkaliyam 4.Sittalai Sattanar
a b c d
A) 2 4 1 3
B) 4 2 3 1
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 1 2 3 4
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
POLITY
1.On whose vision was the term ‘democratic socialism’ described?
A)Mahatma Gandhi B) Smt Indira Gandhi
C)Jawaharlal Nehru D) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
2.How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A)Eighteen languages B) Nineteen languages
c) Sixteen languages D) Twenty one languages
3. In which list does the Union Government enjoy exclusive powers?
A) Union List B) State List
C) Concurrent List D) both (A) and (B)
4. After being elected as the Speaker of the lok Sabba a person
A) Remains a member of his party
B) Is not a member of the Parliament
C) Becomes a non party man
D) May or may not remain a party man.
5. The Deputy Chairman of planning commission
A) is the Prime Minister B) Is the Planning Minister
C) Holds the rank of s cabinet minister D)Is an economic of repute
6. The fundamental duties are incorporated in Article 51 A of the Constitution of India by the
A) 41 st Amendment Act B) 42 nd Amendment Act
C) 43 rd Amendment Act D) 44 th Amendment Act
7. The Supreme Court of India was set up by the
A) Regulating Act, 1773 B) Pitts India Act, 1784
C) Charter Act, 1813 D) Charter Act of 1833
8. Ordinance of Governor has to be passed by the Assembly with in
A) 6 Weeks B) 8 Weeks C) 10 Weeks D) 12 Weeks
9. What is the gap permissible between two sessions of the parliament?
A) One month B) Three months C) Six months D)One year
10. Which of the following states has a separate constitution?
A) Madhya Pradesh B) Uttar Pradesh
C) West Bengal D) Jammu & Kashmir
11. Which of the following statements regarding the fundamental duties contained in the
Constitutions of India are correct?
I.Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
II.Fundamental duties have formed a part of the constitution of India
Since its adoption
III.Fundamental duties have become a part of the Constitution of India
In accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
IV.Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens of India.
Of the statements:
A)I,II and III are correct B) I , II and IV are correct
C)II and III are correct D) III and IV are correct
12. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The 73 rd Amendment granted constitutional status to the Gram Sabha
Reason (R): The Balwantrai Mehta Committee mentioned the Gram Sabha.
Now select the correct answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C)A) is true , both (R) is false
D)(A) is false, but (R)is true.
13. Planning Commission was established in 1950 through
A) A constitutional Amendment B) A Supreme Court Order
C) An executive order D) A decision by the Parliament
14. The Total number of Lok Sabha seats is
A) 500 B) 520 C) 620 D) 543
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
ECONOMY
1. SEBI has introduced rolling settlement for selected shares under the method
A) All shares have to be paid for on the of purchase
B) Purchaser has to make advance payment for the purchase
C) Purchase can be set off against sales
D) Payment has to be settled at the end of 5th day
2. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below
List I List II
A)IFCI 1.1955
B)ICICI 2.1964
C)IDBI 3.1948
D)EXIM Bank 4.1971
Codes:
a b c d
A 4 3 2 1
B 3 2 4 1
C 3 1 2 4
D 2 3 4 1
3.Consider the following statements
I.The explanation of the public sector was based on the Industrial Policy
Resolution, 1956
II.Govt has announced New Industrial Policy in July 1991.
III.Govt has not announced any industrial policy at all.
Of the statements:
A)I alone is correct B) II alone is correct
C)I and II are correct D) All are correct
4.For which purpose is the finance commission appointed?
A) To make recommendation for devolution of non plan revenue resources
B)To earn foreign exchange
C)To recommend measures for profit making public sector enterprises
D)To impose taxes.
5.World Trade Organization was started in the year
A)1984 B)1994 C)1995 D)1996
6.Today India’s external debt is (2001 figures)
A)$ 98.4 Billion B) $ 151.8 Billion C) $ 61 Billion D) $ 98.87 Billion
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
SOCIOLOGY
1.The aspect of the caste system which was particularly condemned by all social reformers was
A)Varna system B) Jati system
C) Ashram system D) untouchability
2. Which one of the following is not considered as part of the civil society?
A) Non Governmental Organizations’ B) Caste based associations
C) Legislature D) Family
3. The philosophers must be the kings.” Who said this?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Plato C) Aristotle D) Indira Gandhi
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Indira Awas Yojana?
A) Soil and Water conservation works
B) Construction of rural roads
C) Providing houses at free of cost to the members of SC/ST and the free bonded labourers
D) Land development and waste land development
2. Consider the following statements:
District Administration stands for
I. Law and order administration within the district
II. Revenue administration within a district
III.Developmental administration within a district
IV.Public administration within a district.
Of the statements
A) I Alone is correct B) II Alone is correct
C) I,II and III are correct D) IV Alone is correct
3. Consider the following statements:
Right to information is necessary in India because it
I Increase people’s participation in administration
II.Makes administration more accountable to people
III.Makes administration more innovative
IV.Makes people aware of administrative decision making
4.In which year was Mandal Commission report implemented?
A)1989 B)1990 C)1991 D)1992
5.The major emphasis in the First Five Year Plan was on
A)Employment Generation B) Agriculture
C)Export Promotion D) Industry
6.UNICEF was established in the year
A)1946 B)1956 C) 1949 D)1954
7.Which one of the following is correct?
A)Human Development Index - United Nations
B)PQLI - 1996
C)Social indicators - India
D)Welfare measures - Morris
8.The oil and Natural Gas Commission was set up in
A)1956 B)1957 C)1959 D)1961
9.Director General of newly established National Investigation Agency (NIA) is
A)Y.S.Dadwal B) Radha Vinod Raju
C)P.R.Raju D) None of them
10.Which one of the following is not one of the recommendations of the Second Labour Commission (2002)?
A)A broad grouping of labour legislation
B)Permitting child labour in the Un organized sector
C)Notifying a national floor level of minimum wage
D)None of these
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
TAMILNADU GEOGRAPHY
1. The district with highest population in Tamilnadu as per 2001 census is
A)Madurai B)Chennai C)Coimbatore D)Trichy
2. The district with highest literacy rate in Tamilnadu is
A)Kanniyakumari B)Tirunelveli C)Cuddalore D)Thanjavur
3. The density of population in Tamilnadu is (as per 2001 census)
A)478 B)456 C)411 D) 626
4. In Tamilnadu, the district with the highest sex ratio as per 2001census
A)Tuticorin B)Tirunelveli C)Ramnad D)Nilgiris
5. Place known for windmills is
A)Muppandal B)Tirupur C)Nangnneri D)None of these
6. Tirupur is located on the banks of river
A)Bhavani B) Noyyal C)Periyar D)Palar
7. In Tamilnadu sugar mill is located at
A) Lalgudi B) Tirunelveli C) Karur D) Cuddalore
8. As per census report 2001, percentage of scheduled caste people of population in
Tamilnadu is
A) 20 % B) 19 % C) 26 % D)10 %
9. The longest river of Tamilnadu is
A) Kaveri B) Pennayar C) Tamirabarani D) Vaigai
10. Recently developed Hyundai Car Industry is located in the district of
A) Kanchipuram B) Tiruvallur C) Cuddalore D) Karur
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
11.Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below
List I List II
a)Nilgiris 1.Fold mountain
b)Vosges 2.Black mountain
c)Alps 3.Volcanic mountain
d)Mt. Fuji 4.Resdual mountain
Codes:
a b c d
A 2 3 4 1
B 3 4 2 1
C 4 2 1 3
D 2 1 4 3
12. The climate around Bikaner can be described as
A)Tropical monsoon B)Hot desert
C) Mediterranean type D) Semiarid steppe
13. In which state does the maximum area of black soil occur?
A) Gujarat B) Maharashtra C) Karnataka D) Andhra Pradesh
14. India is the seventh largest country in the world. It occupies…..
A) 2.4 % B) 3.4 % C) 4.2 % D) 4.3 %
15. The Khasi and Jaintia hills are located in
A) Arunachal Pradesh B) Meghalaya
C) Manipur D) Nagaland
16. The largest producer of chillies in the world is
A) India B) Bangladesh C) Pakistan D) Sri Lanka
17. The ideal temperature for the growth of sugar cane is
A) 20⁰ c to 30⁰ c B) 15⁰ to 40 ⁰c
C) 15 ⁰ c to 20 ⁰ c D) 25 ⁰ c to 40 ⁰c
18. The maximum daily range of temperature can be observed at
A) Chennai B) Thiruvananthapuram
C) Delhi D) Mumbai
19. In which one of the places is electricity generated from hydel power?
A) Neyveli B) Ennore C) Tuticorin D) Mettur
20. The Green Revolution has led to marked increase in
I. Productivity of wheat
II. Productivity of pulses
III. Regional inequalities
IV.Inter personal inequalities
Of the statements:
A)I and II are correct B) III and IV are correct
C) I, III and IV are correct D) All are correct
21. Indian Telephone Industries Ltd is located at
A) Mumbai and Bangalore B) Bangalore
C) Mumbai and New Delhi D) Mumbai and Chennai
22. Raurkela steel plant was set up with the assistance from
A) USSR B) UK C) USA D) West Germany
23. Which state produces the bulk of natural rubber in India?
A) Tamilnadu B) Karnataka C) Andhra Pradesh D) Kerala
24. The total area of India is about
A) 31 lakh sq km B) 37 lakh sq km
C) 32 lakh sq km D) 35 lakh sq km
25. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The equatorial region has dense evergreen forests
having a variety of trees and other plants.
Reason (R): The equatorial region has uniformly hot wet conditions through out the year
Now select the correct answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
26. Which of the following is a planetary wind?
A) The westerlies B) Sea breeze C) Fohn D) Mistral
27. What was the population of India as per the 2001 census?
A) 102.7 crores B) 104.3 crores C) 101.2 crores D) 108.1 crores
28. Which of the following is an inland river port?
A) Kolkata B) Mumbai C) Chennai D) Tuticorin
29. Rhinoceros is unique to which of the following sanctuaries?
A) Priyar B) Gir forest C) Kaziranga D) Jim Corbett
WORLD GEOGRAPHY
30. Suez Canal was first opened in the year
A) 1839 B) 1849 C) 1859 D) 1869
31. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below
List I List II
A)Mt. Everest 1. South America
B)Mt.Kilimanjaro 2. Europe
C)Mt.Elbrus 3. Africa
D)Mt. Aconcagua 4. Asia
Codes:
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 4 3 2 1
32. Which of the following is the smallest in terms area?
A) Vatican city B) Monaco C) Nauru D) San Marino
33. Where does the third largest concentration of population lie?
A) North America B) Eurasia C) South America D) Africa
34. McMahon line lies between which of the following countries?
A) India and Pakistan B) India and Bangladesh
C) India and China D) India and Myanmar
TNPSC GROUP 1, 2009
PRELIMINARY
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE [TAMILNADU]
1.In which year was High Court in Madras established?
A)1862 B) 1871 C)1881 D)1891
2.In which by election to the Parliament did the ADMK win for the first time?
A)Karur B) Andipatti C) Dindigul D) Madurai.
3)Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below
List I List II
a) DMK 1. Mango
b) AIADMK 2. Rising Sun
c) MDMK 3. Two leaves
d) PMK 4. Top
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 4 3 2 1
4. Who was the chief minister of Tamilnadu during the time of Independence of India?
A) O.P. Ramasamy Reddiar B) Kamaraj C) Rajaji D) Bakthavatchalam
5. The total number of Tamilnadu Legislative Assembly is
A) 231 B) 232 C) 233 D) 234
6. In Tamilnadu farmer market is introduced by
A) M.G. Ramachandran B) Janaki Ramachandran
C) Karunanidhi D) Jayalalithaa.
7. Place known for silk fabrics is
A) Coimbatore B) Mumbai C)Kancheepuram D) Surat
8. In which year was Legislative Council abolished in Tamilnadu/
A) 1984 B) 1985 C) 1986 D) 1987
9. In the last General election of 2004 the DMK won
A) 12 seats B) 16 seats C) 14 seats D) 10 seats
10. Who is the author of the book “A Foreign Policy of India”?
A) I.K.Gujral B) B.G.Deshmukh C) L.K. Adwani D) A.J.Toynbee
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE [INDIA]
11. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
A) Industrial policy statement - 2002
B) Report on the committee on the disinvestment - 1987
of shares (Rangarajan committee)
C) Common minimum Programme of United Front Govt - 1996
D) Start of the Five year plan - 2005
12. Who said “Patriotism is religion and religion is love for India”?
A) Swami Vivekananda B) Raj Narain Bose
C) Bankim Chandra Chatterji D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
13. Which of the following monuments was built in memory of the soldiers
who lost their lives in World War I?
A)Gateway of india B) India Gate C)Vijay Path D) Victoria Memorial Hall
14. Terrorists attacked Indian parliament on
A) November 13, 2001 B) September 13, 2001
C) December 13, 2001 D) December 13, 2002
15. The Election Commission in 2000 de-recognized which national party?
A) National congress B) Janata Dal
C) CPI (M) D) CPI
16. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below
List I List II
A)Lalit kala Academy 1.National Academy of Letters
B)Sangeet natak Academy 2. National institute to highlight human
biological and cultural evolution
C)Sahitya Academy 3. National Academy of Fine Arts
D)RAshtriya Manava Sangrahalaya 4. National Academy of Music, Dance and Drama
a b c d
A) 3 4 2 1
B 4 3 2 1
C) 1 3 4 2
D) 3 4 1 2
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE [WORLD]
17. Where were the principles of Panchasheel regulated?
A) Paris B) New Delhi C) Pandong D) Cairo
18. So for how many American Presidents visited India?
A) Three B) Five C) Six D) Seven
19. Which of the following largely influence the Hindustani music?
A) Arab Persian music B) Persian music
C) Central Asian tradition D) All of these
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